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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 13:53

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

I’m British and I'm hella bummed about it. Wish I was American or even Canadian, ’cause let’s be real, Canada’s gonna end up part of the States anyway. What should I do?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Homophobia is clearly a harmful mental sickness. What can LGBT people do to cure it?

You'll usually find your answer there.